Why do we refer to the ideas developed in India in the second half of the first millennium B.C.E. as religion and those developed in China as philosophy? Is this a useful distinction? Why or why not?
How does the political history of China from 500 B.C.E. to 250 B.C.E. help us understand the emergence of philosophies as different as Confucianism, Daoism, and Legalism?