EXAM-1

Section 1: Multiple-Choice Questions

Choose the best answer for questions 1–100.

Question 302.1

1. an ecosystem service.

2. an environmental indicator.

3. heterotrophic activity.

1. I only

2. II only

3. I and II

4. II and III

5. I, II, and III

Question 302.2

1. Landscape fragmentation

2. Introduction of an invasive species

3. Immigration of humans

4. Speciation

5. A disease epidemic

Question 302.3

1. 2 percent

2. 6 percent

3. 10 percent

4. 20 percent

5. 24 percent

Questions 4 and 5 refer to the following experiment:

A group of scientists wanted to test the effects of increased greenhouse gas concentrations on plant growth. They hypothesized that elevated levels of CO₂ would increase plant biomass after 2 weeks, whereas elevated levels of N₂O and CH₄ would have no effect. To test this hypothesis, they placed red maple (Acer rubrum) tree saplings in incubators, and then subjected each sapling to one of three treatments. The treatments included 10 ppm of CO₂, N₂O, or CH₄ gas above ambient concentrations. Each treatment had four replicates. After 2 weeks, they measured plant biomass.

Question 302.4

1. The experiment lacks a control treatment.

2. 10 ppm is a negligible increase of CO₂ relative to ambient concentrations.

3. The hypothesis is actually a null hypothesis.

4. The measured response variable does not relate to the hypothesis.

5. N₂O gas is not a greenhouse gas.

Question 302.5

1. Elevated levels of CO₂ are due to global climate change.

2. Reduced levels of CO₂ due to global climate change will decrease red maple production.

3. An observed increase in red maple production is probably due to elevated levels of CO₂.

4. Increases in red maple production in nature are probably not due to elevated levels of N₂O or CH₄.

5. CH₄ and N₂O are not likely to be biologically important greenhouse gases for tree growth.

Question 302.6

1. the creation of ionic bonds.

2. a release of neutrons and energy.

3. an increase in total energy.

4. the transformation of chemical energy to potential energy.

5. the transformation of heat energy to kinetic energy.

Question 302.7

1. OH⁻, H₂O, CaCO₃

2. CaCl, LiCl, HCl

3. NaOH, BaO, OH⁻

4. NaOH, H₂O, H₂SO₄

5. HF, NaCl, NaOH

Question 302.8

1. 3

2. 10

3. 22

4. 32

5. 45

EXAM-2

Question 302.9

1. A positive feedback loop

2. Creation of chemical energy

3. Release of kinetic energy

1. I only

2. II only

3. III only

4. I and II

5. I and III

Question 302.10

1. 10 percent

2. 17 percent

3. 28 percent

4. 32 percent

5. 60 percent

Question 11 refers to the following graphs:

Question 302.11

1. i

2. ii

3. iii

4. iv

5. v

Question 302.12

1. Photosynthesis generates organic compounds whereas aerobic respiration generates inorganic compounds.

2. Photosynthesis releases energy whereas aerobic respiration consumes energy.

3. Photosynthesis uses energy derived from external sources whereas aerobic respiration uses energy derived from internal sources.

4. Aerobic respiration has a higher energy efficiency than photosynthesis.

5. Photosynthesis consumes chemical energy whereas aerobic respiration generates chemical energy.

Question 302.13

1. carbon taken up by plants in sunlight plus carbon released by plants in the dark.

2. carbon taken up by plants in sunlight.

3. aboveground biomass of plants.

4. aboveground and belowground biomass of plants.

5. carbon taken up by plants in sunlight minus carbon released by plants in the dark.

Question 302.14

1. nitrogen cycle.

2. hydrologic cycle.

3. phosphorus cycle.

4. carbon cycle.

5. sulfur cycle.

Question 302.15

1. Measurement of tree biomass once before and immediately after a forest fire.

2. Measurement of tree biomass once before a drought and annually for the decade following the drought.

3. Measuring LD₅₀ values in various herbivores exposed to a common herbicide.

4. Daily measurement of stream discharge and sediment loads.

5. Measurement of net primary productivity before and after the introduction of an invasive herbivore.

Question 302.16

1. From the March equinox to the September equinox

2. From the September equinox to the March equinox

3. Only on the March and September equinoxes

4. Only on the December and June solstices

5. From the December solstice to the June solstice

EXAM-3

Question 302.17

1. the Coriolis effect.

2. prevailing winds.

3. adiabatic heating.

4. reduced air pressure.

5. the El Niño–Southern Oscillation.

Question 302.18

1. An ENSO event relies on thermohaline circulation.

2. An ENSO event brings warmer air temperatures to South America.

3. Glacial melting could eliminate thermohaline circulation.

4. An ENSO event typically starts around Christmas.

5. ENSO events are driven by a reversal of trade winds.

Question 19 refers to the following graph:

Question 302.19

1. Boreal forest

2. Temperate rainforest

3. Temperate grassland

4. Temperate seasonal rainforest

5. Tropical seasonal forest

Question 302.20

1. algae and emergent plants grow.

2. sunlight does not reach.

3. nutrient levels are primarily oligotrophic.

4. the thermocline exists.

5. phytoplankton are the only photosynthetic organisms.

Question 21 refers to the following table, which contains the number of different spider species found in a survey of 1-m² plots from five gardens. Empty spaces indicate that no spiders of that species were found in the garden.

Question 302.21

1. Garden A

2. Garden B

3. Garden C

4. Garden D

5. Garden E

Question 302.22

1. Individuals differ in their phenotypes.

2. Differences in traits can be passed on from parents to offspring.

3. The genotype of an organism determines its phenotype.

4. Not all offspring can survive.

5. Differences in traits are associated with differences in the ability to survive and reproduce.

Question 302.23

1. The founder effect

2. Inbreeding depression

3. Gene flow

4. The bottleneck effect

5. Genetic drift

Question 302.24

1. Monocropping corn of the same genotype

2. Fragmenting habitat

3. Overharvesting fisheries

4. Enforcing size limits on hunting

5. Connecting lakes through an artificial canal

EXAM-4

Question 302.25

1. realized niche

2. fundamental niche

3. extinction rate

1. I only

2. II only

3. I and II

4. I and III

5. I, II, and III

Question 302.26

1. Abundance of a limiting nutrient

2. Limited food

3. Density-dependent factors

4. Abundance of competing species

5. Population distribution

Question 302.27

1. 30 × e^{0.5 × 3}

2. 30 × e^{0.7 × 3}

3. 70 × e^{30 × 3}

4. 0.7 × e^{30 × 3}

5. 0.5 × e^{30 × 3}

Question 302.28

1. A system of habitat corridors that link individual populations

2. The presence of both r- and K-selected species

3. Variation in the size of individual populations

1. I only

2. II only

3. I and II

4. II and III

5. I, II, and III

Question 302.29

1. Keystone species can be mutualists with other species.

2. Keystone species are often rare individuals in a community.

3. Keystone species are most likely to be commensalists.

4. Keystone species can be highly lethal to several species in a community.

5. Keystone species may interact with only a single other species.

Question 302.30

1. At northern latitudes, genetic diversity of a given fish species is greater than at southern latitudes.

2. At northern latitudes, large lakes contain more fish species than small lakes.

3. At northern latitudes, large lakes have larger populations of each species than small lakes.

4. At northern latitudes, large lakes have experienced fewer species extinctions than small lakes.

5. At northern latitudes, small lakes were colonized by new species faster than large lakes.

Question 302.31

1. 5 years

2. 15 years

3. 47 years

4. 72 years

5. 86 years

Question 302.32

1. 1.8

2. 2.0

3. 2.2

4. 3.0

5. 3.5

Question 302.33

1. An increase in GDP

2. Switching from inland to offshore oil drilling

3. A shift from subsistence energy sources to natural gas

4. An increase in affordable health care

5. An increase in the use of family planning

Question 302.34

1. exhibits a stable population size.

2. is likely to exhibit a high population momentum.

3. has a high crude birth rate.

1. I only

2. III only

3. I and II

4. I and III

5. II and III

EXMA-5

Question 302.35

1. impact on the environment, population size, affluence, and total fertility rate.

2. infant mortality rate, population size, affluence, and total fertility rate.

3. impact on the environment, population size, affluence, and technology.

4. industry, population growth, architecture, and technology.

5. industry, population growth, affluence, and technology.

Question 302.36

1. along transform fault boundaries.

2. at the bottom of the ocean.

3. through volcanic activity.

4. above geological hotspots.

5. adjacent to subduction zones.

Question 302.37

1. An earthquake of magnitude 8.0 on the Richter scale occurs about once every year.

2. Earthquakes occur when rocks of the asthenosphere rupture along a fault.

3. Earthquakes are most common along fault zones.

4. The Ring of Fire describes a geological circle on Earth where earthquakes are likely to occur.

5. An earthquake of magnitude 4 on the Richter scale is 100 times greater than an earthquake of magnitude 2.

Question 302.38

1. Acid rain

2. Burial in sediment

3. Volcanic activity

4. Growth of plant roots

5. Deposition

Question 302.39

1. Excessive concentrations of nutrients in soil can become toxic to many types of plants.

2. Clay can hold heavy metals that are toxic to plants.

3. Soil that is 60 percent clay can deprive plant roots of oxygen.

4. The base saturation of clay soil is too high for most plants.

5. Earthworms are unable to penetrate clay soils.

Question 302.40

1. Open-pit mining

2. Mountaintop removal

3. Strip mining

4. Subsurface mining

5. Placer mining

Question 302.41

1. a cone of depression is created near a coastal ecosystem.

2. humans drill into a confined aquifer near the coast.

3. farmers irrigate their crops with an excess of saline water.

4. an artesian well is created near the coast.

5. the soil near a coastline allows for rapid water drainage.

Question 302.42

1. High concentrations of uranium in or around the Dead Sea.

2. Lack of outlets for water to escape

3. Relatively impermeable soil at the bottom of the lake

1. I only

2. II only

3. III only

4. I and II

5. II and III

Question 302.43

1. Construction of a fish ladder to help migrating fish pass the dam

2. Millions of fish killed when they are sucked into the dam turbines

3. Creation of valuable lake shoreline that promotes housing and tourism

4. Loss of seasonal flooding that promotes downstream fish diversity

5. Changes in the temperature profile of the river before and after the dam

Question 302.44

1. Drip irrigation requires far more work for annual crops than perennial crops.

2. Drip irrigation is efficient, but encourages weed growth.

3. When considering the total cost of materials and water, drip irrigation is one of the most expensive irrigation methods.

4. Drip irrigation cannot supply sufficient water for most types of crops.

5. Drip irrigation uses a tremendous amount of energy.

EXAM-6

Question 302.45

1. The plant withdraws cold water from a stream and later returns warm water to the stream.

2. The plant contaminates water with by-products of coal combustion.

3. The plant withdraws cold water from a stream and later releases water vapor from a cooling tower.

4. In the plant, water passes through a hydroelectric turbine.

5. Water is condensed after it has been converted to steam.

Question 302.46

1. Power plants emitting air pollution

2. Farmers siphoning water from a county aqueduct for irrigation

3. Office staff using a common coffee machine

4. A ranch charging farmers to board their horses

5. Eliminating laws that regulate permits for sport hunting

Question 47 refers to the following graph:

Question 302.47

1. 0

2. 10

3. 30

4. 35

5. 45

Question 302.48

1. Dead biomass is retained in the forest.

2. Nutrients in dead material are liberated for primary producers.

3. The risk of forest fires is minimized.

4. Habitat is provided for early-succession species.

5. The burning of the forest can stimulate the growth of other plant species.

Question 302.49

1. urban communities with low population densities.

2. suburban communities with low population densities.

3. suburban communities not connected to any central city.

4. urban communities whose services are no longer funded by a major city’s government.

5. urban communities that are now converted into suburbs.

Question 302.50

1. Fund individual communities within the city to develop a theme that makes each community distinct from adjacent neighborhoods.

2. Provide public transportation for routes that circle the city in order to encourage driving of personal cars within the city.

3. Involve neighborhood residents in making decisions regarding regulation of local services and development of new infrastructure.

4. Develop apartments and condominiums in the same areas.

5. Avoid the development of businesses in green spaces.

Question 302.51

1. Insufficient access to vegetables due to diversion of crops for animal feed

2. Lack of nutritional information

3. High availability of inexpensive food with low nutrient content

4. High rates of iron deficiency among people

5. High caloric expenditure among people

Question 302.52

1. 0.4

2. 2.5

3. 20

4. 80

5. 200

EXAM-7

Question 302.53

1. Intercropping increases the carrying capacity of insect herbivores more than monocropping.

2. Intercropping promotes plant mutualisms.

3. Relative to monocropping, intercropping increases the prevalence of disease outbreaks among crops.

1. I only

2. II only

3. III only

4. I and II

5. I, II, and III

Question 302.54

1. No-till agriculture reduces wind and water erosion.

2. No-till soil undergoes less oxidation.

3. Organic farms are less likely to use no-till agriculture.

4. No-till agriculture increases crop production relative to conventional tilling methods.

5. No-till agriculture releases less CO₂ than conventional tilling methods.

Question 302.55

1. No-till agriculture

2. Integrated pest management

3. Broad-spectrum herbicides

4. Use of a pesticide treadmill

5. Buffer zones around crops

Question 56 refers to the following table:

Question 302.56

1. Biodiesel

2. Liquid petroleum

3. Ethanol from corn

4. Ethanol from sugarcane

5. Natural gas

Question 302.57

1. 10,000

2. 16,000

3. 21,000

4. 22,400

5. 25,100

Question 302.58

1. Liquid coal and oil sands

2. Petroleum and oil sands

3. Petroleum and coal

4. Petroleum and natural gas

5. Uranium and coal

Question 302.59

1. We are nearing the peak of the Hubbert curve.

2. The average number of electrical devices per human has increased steadily.

3. Power plants are becoming more efficient and are now producing more electricity.

4. We have switched to less energy intense forms of fossil fuels that have a smaller impact on the environment.

5. We continue to find more oil reserves, so the supply of energy has increased while demand has remained relatively steady.

Question 302.60

1. 1 neutron, ¹⁴²Boron, heat energy

2. 1 neutron, ¹⁴²Barium, ¹³⁵Cesium

3. 1 neutron, ¹⁴²Barium, kinetic energy

4. Kinetic energy, ¹⁴²Boron, potential energy

5. Potential energy, ¹⁴²Barium, kinetic energy

Question 302.61

1. Increasing insulation of walls and ceilings in a residence

2. Replacing LED bulbs with CFL bulbs

3. Using a passive solar design in the construction of a new building

4. Installing sensors to turn off lights when a room is vacant

5. Implementing a financial incentive to encourage less driving

EXAM-8

Question 302.62

1. Kinetic/potential/mechanical

2. Chemical/potential/potential

3. Solar/ kinetic/potential

4. Chemical/kinetic/kinetic

5. Solar/chemical/kinetic

Question 302.63

1. active solar technology.

2. photovoltaic cell technology.

3. passive solar technology.

4. smart grid technology.

5. Energy Star appliances.

Question 302.64

1. Efficiency of isolating hydrogen from water or natural gas

2. By-products of generating electricity from hydrogen

3. Energy produced by the reaction between hydrogen and oxygen

4. Efficiency of electric engines

5. Energy required to compress or liquefy hydrogen for transport

Question 302.65

1. improve the efficiency of energy production.

2. improve the efficiency of energy transportation through power lines.

3. improve the capacity factor of power plants.

4. streamline energy distribution and reduce excess energy capacity on electrical grids.

5. generate more affordable energy for consumers.

Question 302.66

1. Throughout the entire growing season

2. Primarily during the spring

3. Primarily during the summer

4. Throughout the year

5. During the fall

Question 302.67

1. There will be a higher abundance of an indicator species in the stream before the lagoon began leaking than after it began leaking.

2. There will be a higher evenness of an indicator species in the stream before the lagoon began leaking than after it began leaking.

3. There will be a lower abundance of an indicator species in the stream before the lagoon began leaking than after it began leaking.

4. There will be no difference in the abundance of phytoplankton in the stream before the lagoon began leaking and after it began leaking.

5. There will be no difference in the abundance of an indicator species in the stream before the lagoon began leaking and after it began leaking.

Question 302.68

1. Salt

2. Pyrite rock

3. Aluminum

4. Coal

5. Sulfur

Question 302.69

1. Incidences of human cancer associated with spraying crops with pesticides

2. Formation of ovaries in male fish

3. Suffocation of fish as a result of inert pesticide ingredients

4. Thinning of bird egg shells

5. Increasing concentrations of iron at higher levels of a food chain

Question 302.70

1. Most of the sediment load in the stream is probably from a natural source.

2. The surrounding area probably has a high amount of impervious surface.

3. The primary cause of low insect and fish diversity is industrial pollution.

4. There is probably a high biochemical oxygen demand in the benthos of the stream.

5. The streams have very low resilience.

EXAM-9

Question 302.71

1. primary and secondary pollutants.

2. PM_2.5 and O_3.

3. volatile organic compounds and O₃.

1. I only

2. II only

3. III only

4. I and II

5. II and III

Question 302.72

1. The central United States and the Mississippi River

2. The West Coast of the United States

3. The northeastern United States

4. Areas east of the Rocky Mountains

5. The southeastern United States

Question 73 refers to the following figure:

Question 302.73

1. The city instituted a cap-and-trade policy on the emissions of sulfur dioxide.

2. Several power plants reduced the temperature at which fuel was combusted.

3. Automobile use was limited by enforcing a toll on major roadways.

4. The city began enforcing policies that mandated every car have a working catalytic converter.

5. Power plants began installing electrostatic precipitators in their smokestacks.

Question 302.74

1. UV-C radiation, O₂, O₃, ClO

2. UV-C radiation, O₂, O₃, O

3. UV-B radiation, O₂, 3O, ClO

4. O₂, CFC, O₃, ClO

5. UV-B radiation, O₂, O₃, ClO

Question 302.75

1. the use of asbestos in building insulation.

2. radioactive decay of uranium and polonium-210.

3. the use of granitic rock in construction material.

4. the use of electronic equipment, such as copy machines.

5. poor ventilation in buildings.

Question 302.76

1. yard waste.

2. paper products.

3. plastic products.

4. glass products.

5. food scraps.

Question 302.77

1. Composting can be a way to divert material from the landfill.

2. Efficient composting requires the material to be mixed frequently.

3. Composting produces a substantial amount of carbon dioxide.

4. Efficient composting requires an abundance of anaerobic bacteria.

5. Meat and dairy products are typically not composted.

EXAM-10

Questions 78–80 refer to the following scenario:

In one particular landfill that has been capped, 80 percent of the annual precipitation runs off without infiltrating the surface. The remaining 20 percent infiltrates and leaches through the soil. There is no leachate collection system, so any water that infiltrates the surface eventually enters the groundwater. Suppose that this 50-acre landfill receives a total of 200 million L of rainfall each year. Also suppose that the total mass of aluminum in the landfill is 100,000 kg and 1 percent of that is leached each year.

Question 302.78

1. 20 mg/L

2. 25 g/L

3. 25 mg/L

4. 250 mg/L

5. 2,500 g/L

Question 302.79

1. 2 mg/L

2. 5 mg/L

3. 20 mg/L

4. 50 mg/L

5. 500 mg/L

Question 302.80

1. 1 km

2. 3 km

3. 10 km

4. 15 km

5. 20 km

Question 302.81

1. Superfund sites are currently hazardous to human health whereas Brownfields are potentially hazardous to humans in the future.

2. Superfund sites are limited to cities whereas Brownfields can occur in both urban and rural locations.

3. The Superfund program only funds the cleanup of wastes deemed hazardous under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, whereas the Brownfield program funds the cleanup of all hazardous wastes.

4. Superfund sites are generally reclaimed for human uses (e.g., recreation) whereas Brownfields are cleaned but never reclaimed.

5. Superfund sites are federally funded and reserved for locations with high public health risk whereas Brownfields are state funded and designated in less hazardous locations.

Question 302.82

1. Tipping fees that exceed the value of recycled goods

2. A stable demand, but low supply of recycled cardboard

3. Construction of a landfill with a low tipping fee

4. Initiation of an integrated waste management program

5. Initiation of an upcycling program

Question 302.83

1. when people generate resistant bacteria by not completing antibiotic dosages.

2. when a disease unexpectedly jumps from an animal to human host.

3. from prion mutations.

4. from consumption of uncooked meat.

5. from sexual transmission.

Question 302.84

1. A group of farmers that are planning to spray crops with atrazine and a group of farmers that are planning to use organic pesticides

2. A group of construction workers that have been exposed to asbestos and a group of construction workers that have been exposed to PCBs

3. A group of children with mothers exposed to PCBs during pregnancy and a group of children who were exposed to DDT after they were born

4. Members of a town that was downwind of a commercial farm that sprayed pesticides and members of a town that was downwind of an organic farm

5. Humans raised when DDT was used and humans raised after DDT was no longer used

EXAM-11

Question 302.85

1. Policies enacted as a result of the Stockholm Convention

2. Allowing the use of a pesticide that has a low risk to human health

3. Banning the use of certain nanoparticles until further research has assessed their risk to human health

4. Dividing the LD₅₀ of a chemical by 1,000 to determine safe levels of human consumption

5. Laws that permit the sale of drugs for human use only if the drug has been tested for toxicity

Question 302.86

1. There was a lack of nearby source populations to recolonize the wetland.

2. There were synergistic interactions between the pesticide and environmental factors.

3. An emerging infectious disease was killing susceptible individuals.

4. The pesticide does not biomagnify in the amphibians.

5. Wetland conditions allowed for a longer persistence time of the pesticide than laboratory studies revealed.

Question 302.87

1. Loss of ecosystem resilience

2. Increase in disease prevalence

3. Loss of regulating services

1. II only

2. III only

3. I and II

4. I and III

5. I, II, and III

Question 302.88

1. A decrease in genetic diversity

2. A decrease in edge habitat

3. Lower resiliency

4. Loss of habitat diversity

5. Faster extinction rates

Question 302.89

1. The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species

2. The Lacey Act

3. The Endangered Species Act

4. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

5. National Environmental Policy Act

Question 302.90

1. A wildlife refuge

2. A national park

3. A biosphere reserve

4. Multiple-use lands

5. A managed resource protection area

Question 302.91

1. Invasive species are defined as species that come from other countries.

2. By definition, all exotic species are invasive.

3. All invasive species spread rapidly.

4. Invasive species typically have few ecological interactions.

5. Invasive species must come from another continent.

Question 302.92

1. Greenhouse gases with high global warming potential persist in the atmosphere for tens to hundreds of years.

2. Greenhouse gases absorb infrared radiation reflected by Earth’s surface.

3. Greenhouse gases with high warming potential include compounds derived from both natural and anthropogenic sources.

4. Some greenhouse gases filter out harmful ultraviolet radiation.

5. Greenhouse gases that contribute to warming of Earth are located in the stratosphere.

Question 302.93

1. Topsoil of freshly tilled croplands

2. Sediments of a deep lake

3. Well-fertilized croplands

4. Compacted, wet soils under cattle farms

5. Recently flooded cropland

EXAM-12

Question 94 refers to the following graph:

Question 302.94

1. Country B has higher per-capita CO₂ emissions.

2. Country B experiences warmer fall and winter temperatures than country A.

3. Average CO₂ concentrations for country A are increasing relative to average concentrations for country B.

4. Country B experiences higher levels of spring and summer primary production.

5. Country B is more industrial than country A.

Question 302.95

1. Increased absorption of atmospheric CO₂ by the ocean

2. Methane production from peatland decomposition

3. Increased evapotranspiration from plant growth

4. CO₂ release from forest fires during dry spells

5. Reduced albedo resulting from melting ice

Question 302.96

1. The United States was the only developed nation that did not sign the Kyoto protocol.

2. Total carbon emissions in the United States have increased over the past two decades.

3. A switch from coal to natural gas has led to a major decrease in carbon emissions.

4. The U.S. EPA is legally required to regulate greenhouse gases.

5. Total carbon emissions in the United States have decreased since 2007.

Question 97 refers to the following figure:

Question 302.97

1. i

2. ii

3. iii

4. iv

5. v

Question 302.98

1. EPA

2. OSHA

3. DOE

4. WHO

5. UNDEP

Question 302.99

1. Cap-and-trade on carbon emissions

2. Green taxes

3. Required reclamation of open-pit mines

1. I only

2. II only

3. III only

4. I and II

5. II and III

Question 302.100

1. NIMBY politics

2. Higher carbon emissions in developed nations

3. Technology transfer

4. Racial segregation

5. A higher abundance of landfills in economically poor areas

Section 2: Free-Response Questions

EXAM-13

Write your answer to each part clearly. Support your answers with relevant information and examples. Where calculations are required, show your work.

Question 302.101

1. Describe four positive externalities of installing solar-powered trash compactors. (2 points)

2. Describe six cradle-to-grave components of solar-powered trash compactors. (2 points)

3. Suggest one way that the installation of solar-powered trash compactors can reverse the effects of urban blight. (2 points)

4. The price of a regular trash bin is $300, and it has a lifespan of 20 years. The price of a solar-powered trash compactor is $4,000, and it has a lifespan of 10 years; it also requires approximately $150 in maintenance costs each year. On average, a trash collection visit costs $5 in fuel and $20 in employee salary. Based on this information, are solar-powered trash compactors economically beneficial? (2 points)

5. Describe two ways that you might determine if solar-powered trash compactors are environmentally beneficial. (2 points)

Question 302.102

1. Costa Rica lies just north of the equator and contains a series of mountain ranges that run the entire length of the country.

   1. Given its geographic location, what is likely to be the prevailing wind pattern across the country? (1 point)

   2. Describe how mountain ranges contribute to the climactic, geographic, and biological diversity observed in Costa Rica. (1 point)

2. Given that Costa Rica is bordered by the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans, how are weather patterns in the country likely to be affected by the El Niño–Southern Oscillation (ENSO)? (2 points)

3. Describe four ecosystem services that are provided through the protection of land and how the Costa Rican government may profit from each of them. (4 points)

4. To promote economic sustainability, a large proportion of land was protected through debt-for-nature programs. Describe debt-for-nature programs and why they are effective. (2 points)

EXAM-14

Question 302.103

1. List three possible inputs and three outputs of organic material to a cropland. (2 points)

2. List three possible inputs and three outputs of inorganic material to a cropland. (2 points)

3. Define gross primary productivity (GPP) and describe how a farmer could measure GPP on a cropland. (2 points)

4. For most crop species, farmers only harvest aboveground primary production. All belowground plant material is left to decompose.

   1. Describe the processes of ammonification and dentrification. (2 points)

   2. Discuss how the spraying of fungicides might alter the nitrogen budget of a farmland. (2 points)

Question 302.104

1. Describe the processes that could have led to changes in antioxidant production in birds around Chernobyl. (2 points)

2. Define the bottleneck effect, describe how it may apply to wildlife populations around Chernobyl, and discuss potential problems associated with the bottleneck effect. (2 points)

3. Discuss the importance of having intact bird habitat in areas surrounding Chernobyl that were not exposed to radiation. (2 points)

4. In general, birds that produce high levels of antioxidants exhibit lower levels of reproduction than birds that produce lower levels of antioxidants. However, researchers hypothesize that birds that produce high levels of antioxidants in the area around Chernobyl are likely to have a higher overall fitness than birds in the area without this trait. Design an experiment to test this hypothesis. In your experiment, define

   1. a null hypothesis. (1 point)

   2. treatments and controls. (1 point)

   3. a description of the experimental procedure. (2 points)