Solution (a) The value of f and its derivatives at 0 are f(x)=sinxf(0)=0f′(x)=cosxf′(0)=1f′′(x)=−sinxf′′(0)=0f′′′(x)=−cosxf′′′(0)=−1
Higher-order derivatives follow this same pattern, so if f(x)=sinx can be represented by a power series in x, then sinx=f(0)+f′(0)1!x+f′′(0)2!x2+f′′′(0)3!x3+⋯=x−x33!+x55!−x77!+⋯=∞∑k=0(−1)kx2k+1(2k+1)!
(b) To prove that the series actually converges to sinx for all x, we need to show that the remainders R2n+1(x) and R2n(x) approach zero. For R2n+1(x) we have R2n+1(x)=(−1)n+1f(2n+2)(u)x2n+2(2n+2)!
where u is between 0 and x. Since |f(2n+2)(u)|=|sinu|≤1 for every number u, then 0≤|R2n+1(x)|=|f(2n+2)(u)|(2n+2)!|x|2n+2≤|x|2n+2(2n+2)!
By the Ratio Test, the series ∞∑k=0|x|2k+2(2k+2)! converges for all x, so lim
By the Squeeze Theorem, \lim\limits_{n\rightarrow \infty }\vert R_{2n+1}(x)\vert =0 and therefore \lim\limits_{n\rightarrow \infty } R_{2n+1}(x)=0 for all x.
A similar argument holds for the remainder \left\vert R_{2n}(x) \right\vert =\frac{\left\vert \cos u\right\vert x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1) !}.
We conclude that the series \sum\limits_{k\,=\,0}^{\infty }\,(-1) ^{k}\frac{x^{2k+1}}{(2k+1) !} converges to \sin x for all x. That is, \bbox[5px, border:1px solid black, #F9F7ED]{\bbox[#FAF8ED,5pt]{ \sin x=x-\frac{x^{3}}{3!}+\frac{x^{5}}{5!} -\cdots +(-1)^{n}\frac{x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}+\cdots =\sum\limits_{k\,=\,0}^{\infty }\,(-1) ^{k}\frac{x^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!} }}